Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 20.06.2025 00:16
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Do Americans realize how much goodwill and credibility they've lost in the past two weeks?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
When reading can – and can't – help with mental health - BBC
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
What are some reasons why some men choose to live alone instead of getting married?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.